Harsimritkaurji

I have a few comments to make about your hermeneutical (hermeneutics is the art of interpretation) errors and it is necessary to get technical and go deep into detail:

• I do not understand how you arrived at your conclusion “Tilang ang 724 "Henh, tun henh, tuh hovenhaar." You You are You cause all to exist. This is the same root word as in Yehovah (God).” Please forgive me but linguistically this is utter nonsense. Since you are conversant with Hebrew, you should know about the Tetragrammaton, the four Hebrew letters (Yod, He, Waw and He) that correspond to YHWH, the Holiest & most sacred Name of God which was so holy that no one ever uttered it & hence no one knows how to pronounce it. You should also know about the derivation of Yahweh, which was arrived at by inserting the vowels of Adonai (Hebrew for Master) in between the tetragrammaton. (The Masoretes, who from about the 6th to the 10th century worked to reproduce the original text of the Hebrew Bible, replaced the vowels of the name YHWH with the vowel signs of the Hebrew word Adonai. See http://ccat.sas.upenn.edu/rs/2/Judaism/name/) The result was YaHoWaH, which evolved into Yehovah & Jehovah.
• You read your own meaning into John 1:14 “The Word became flesh and dwelt among us” and say that this is not just about the birth of a messiah, it is about the creation of nature and refers to God dwelling everywhere. There is no justification for any such interpretation. The original Koiné Greek does not allow this. John is writing about a genuine INCARNATION. The Word took upon Himself our flesh, with all that that means. The Greek verb “dwelt” is “eskenosen” & is connected with the Greek word for “tent” (skene) or as some prefer “tabernacle.” The idea being that just as people do not normally live in tents permanently, so The Word “pitched His tent among us for a while.” The picture is of a temporary dwelling. Used metaphorically here, it suggests the temporary nature of the Word’s earthly presence “among us.” To a Jewish mind it would be reminiscent of God’s Shekinah presence with his people in the Old Testament.
• You misinterpret John 20:28 where the doubting Thomas says"My Lord and My God." You say it means "Wah Wah, I wonder in awe at the greats things God has been doing and will be doing in the entire universe." Thus according to you, Thomas was not calling Jesus "God." This is twisting the meaning of the scriptures. The literal translation of the Greek is: “Answered Thomas and said to him, the Lord of me and the God of me. The phrase rendered " Answered Thomas and said to him " is a rather common construction in the New Testament, and always precedes a direct address to the person referred to ("him," in this case, who can only be Jesus). This verse occurs in the middle of a conversation between Thomas and Jesus, and suggestions that Thomas was addressing the Father, or crying out in surprise are not credible. For a devout Jew in the first Century to address someone as "my God" could only mean one thing: The "God" being addressed occupied a unique position in the speaker's devotion. For a Jew, this could only be YHWH. The phrase "my God" occurs over 135 times in the Bible, and when spoken by a Jew, always refers to YHWH the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Thomas, in the light of the Unique Resurrection of Jesus from the dead, applied to Jesus the titles of Lord (Greek-kyrios) and God (Greek -theos), both of which were titles of deity. It is not exclamation, but address, the vocative case though the form of the nominative, a very common thing in the Koiné Greek. Thomas was wholly convinced and did not hesitate to address the Risen Christ as Lord and God. And Jesus accepts the words and praises Thomas for so doing.

Jass Singh